Hi all,
Hopefully someone can give clarity on this.
Back in Feb 2016, i had a DCA file a claim literally days before the alleged debt's 6 year clock was due up (They basically threw it at the wall in a list minute dash).
The clock was therefore 'stopped'.
After filing a robust defence, the case became stayed. (They failed to file a 'reply to defence').
3 YEARS later (1st March 2019) I received a 'Notice of Discontinuance' letter, with a copy of the filing. - Excellent! That's the end of that... (I have confirmed with the court that the case is closed.)
However .. What happened to the clock when it was stopped 3 years ago, with only days to go before becoming statute barred?
Did having a discontinuance filed, 'restart' the clock again, thus allowing it to run down the remaining time?
OR was the clock 'reset' for another 6 years?
OR - if the alleged debt is 'sold on', and a NEW DCA chances their arm, WILL they have to go by the ORIGINAL dates the alleged debt was last acknowledged & or defaulted... Which was waaaaay back in 2010 (9 Years ago)... Therefore making the alleged debt ABSOLUTELY without ambiguity Statute Barred?
So in a nutshell..... What did the 6 year clock do after it was stopped, but the case was then cancelled?
Hope someone can clear this 'grey' area up.
:-)
Hopefully someone can give clarity on this.
Back in Feb 2016, i had a DCA file a claim literally days before the alleged debt's 6 year clock was due up (They basically threw it at the wall in a list minute dash).
The clock was therefore 'stopped'.
After filing a robust defence, the case became stayed. (They failed to file a 'reply to defence').
3 YEARS later (1st March 2019) I received a 'Notice of Discontinuance' letter, with a copy of the filing. - Excellent! That's the end of that... (I have confirmed with the court that the case is closed.)
However .. What happened to the clock when it was stopped 3 years ago, with only days to go before becoming statute barred?
Did having a discontinuance filed, 'restart' the clock again, thus allowing it to run down the remaining time?
OR was the clock 'reset' for another 6 years?
OR - if the alleged debt is 'sold on', and a NEW DCA chances their arm, WILL they have to go by the ORIGINAL dates the alleged debt was last acknowledged & or defaulted... Which was waaaaay back in 2010 (9 Years ago)... Therefore making the alleged debt ABSOLUTELY without ambiguity Statute Barred?
So in a nutshell..... What did the 6 year clock do after it was stopped, but the case was then cancelled?
Hope someone can clear this 'grey' area up.
:-)